Company: CTS
APTITUDE TEST
Questions = 70 ; time limit = 70 minutes… Correct answer carry one mark and wrong answer carry 0.25 marks. , Offline (paper & pen) test
VERBAL SECTION (25 questions-25min)
Directions for Questions 1-5: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow on the basis of the information provided in the passage.
Few areas of neuron behavioral research seemed more promising is the early sixties than that investigating the relationship between protein synthesis and learning. The conceptual framework for the research was derived directly from molecular biology, which had shown that genetic information is stored in nucleic acids and expressed in proteins why not acquired information as well.
The first step towards establishing a connection between protein synthesis and learning seemed to be to block memory (cause adhesion) by interrupting the production of proteins. We were fortunate in finding a non lethal dosage of puromycin that could, it first appealed, thoroughly inhibit brain protein synthesis as well as reliability produce amnesia.
Before the actual connection between protein synthesis and learning could be established however we began to have douche about whether inhibition of protein synthesis was in fact the method by which puromycin produced amnesia. First, ocher drugs, glutavimides themselves potent protein synthesis inhibitors either failed to cause amnesia in some situations where it could easily be induced by puromycin or produced an amnesia with a different time course from that of puromycin. Second, puromycin was found to inhabit protein synthesis by breaking certain amino acid chaim, and the resulting fragments were suspected of being the actual cause of amnesia is some eases. Third, puromycin was reported to cause abnormalities in the train, including seizures. Thus, not only were decreased protein synthesis and amnesia dissociated, but alternative mechanism for the amnestic action of puromycin were readily suggested.
So, puromycin turned out to be a disappointment. It came to be regarded as a poor agent for amnesia studies, although, of course, it was poor only in the context of our original paradigm of protein synthesis inhibition. In our frustration, our initial response was simply to change dregs rather than our conceptual orientation. After many such disappointments, however, it now appears unlikely, that we will make a firm connection between protein synthesis and learning merely by pursuing the approaches of the past our experience with drugs has shown that all the amnestic agents, often interfere with memory in ways that seem unrelated to their inhibition of protein synthesis. More importantly, the notion that the interruption or intensification of protein production in the train can be related in cause and affect fashion to learning non seems simplistic and unproductive. Remove the battery from a car and the car will not go Drive the car a long distance at high speed and the battery will become more highly charged. Neither of these facts proves that the battery power the car, only knowledge of the overall automotive system will reveal it mechanism of locomotion and the role of the battery with in the system.
1. The primary purpose a the passage is to show that extensive experimentation has
A.Mot supported the hypothesis that learning is directly dependent on protein synthesis
B.Cast doubt on the value of puromycin in the newer behavioral study of learning
C.Revealed the importance of amnesia in the neuron behavioral study of learning
D.Demonstrated the importance of amino acid fragmentation in the induction of amnesia.
E.Not yet demonstrated the applicability of molecular biology to behavioral research.
Ans : A
2. According to the passage, neuron behaviorists initially based their belief that protein synthesis was
related to learning on which of the following?
A.Specific research into learning on which of the following
B.Traditional theories about learning
C.Historic experiments on the effects puromycin
D.Previous discoveries in molecular biology
E.Now technique in protein synthesis.
Ans : D
3. This passage was most likely excepted from
A.A book review in a leading journal devoted to genetic research.
B.A diary kept by a practicing neuron behavioral research
C.An article summarizing a series of scientific investigations in neuron behavioral research.
D.A news paper article on recent advances in the biochemistry of learning
E.A technical article on experimental techniques in the field of molecular biology.
Ans : C
4. It can be inferred from the passage that after puromycin was perceived to be a disappointment,
researches did which of the following?
A.They continued to experiment with puromycin until a neuron anatomical framework was developed.
B.They continued to experiment with puromycin, but also tried other protein synthesis inhibitors
C.They ceased to experiment with puromycin and shifted to other promising protein synthesis inhibitors.
D.They ceased to experiment with puromycin and reexamined through experiments the relationship between genetic information and acquired information.
E.They continued to experiment with puromycin, but applied their results to other facts of memory research.
Ans : C
5. In the example of the car the battery is meant to represent which of the following elements in the
neuron behavioral research program?
A.glutarimides
B.acquired information
C.puromycin
D.amnesia
E.protein synthesis
Directions for Questions 6-10: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow on the basis of the information provided in the passage.
MARK HUGHES is a master of the fine art of survival. His Los Angeles-based Herbalife International Inc. is a pyramid outfit that peddles weight-loss and nutrition concoctions of dubious value. Bad publicity and regulatory crackdowns hurt his U.S. business in the late 1980s. But Hughes, 41, continues to enjoy a luxurious lifestyle in a $20 million Beverly Hills mansion. He has been sharing the pad and a yacht with his third wife, a former Miss Petite U.S.A. He can finance this lavish lifestyle just on his salary and bonus, which last year came to $7.3 million.
He survived his troubles in the U.S. by moving overseas, where regulators are less zealous and consumers even more naive, at least initially. Today 77% of Herbalife retail sales derive from overseas. Its new prowling grounds: Asia and Russia. Last year Herbalife’s net earnings doubled, to $45 million, on net sales of $632 million. Based on Herbalife’s Nasdaq-traded stock, the company has a market capitalization of $790 million, making Hughes 58% worth $454 million.
There’s a worm, though, in Hughes apple. Foreigners aren’t stupid. In the end they know when they’ve been had. In France, for instance, retail sales rose to $97 million by 1993 and then plunged to $12 million last year. In Germany sales hit $159 million in 1994 and have since dropped to $54 million.
Perhaps aware that the world may not provide an infinite supply of suckers, Hughes wanted to unload some of his shares. But in March, after Herbalife’s stock collapsed, he put off a plan to dump about a third of his holdings on the public.
Contributing to Hughes’ woes, Herbalife’s chief counsel and legal attack dog, David Addis, quit in January. Before packing up, he reportedly bellowed at Hughes, “I can’t protect you anymore.” Addis, who says he wants to spend more time with his family, chuckles and claims attorney-client privilege.
Trouble on the home front, too. On a recent conference call with distributors, Hughes revealed he’s divorcing his wife, Suzan, whose beaming and perky image adorns much of Herbalife’s literature.
Meanwhile, in a lawsuit that’s been quietly moving through Arizona’s Superior Court, former Herbalife distributor Daniel Fallow of Sandpoint, Idaho charges that Herbalife arbitrarily withholds payment to distributors and marks up its products over seven times the cost of manufacturing. Fallow also claims Hughes wanted to use the Russian mafia to gain entry to that nation’s market.
Fallow himself is no angel, but his lawsuit, which was posted on the Internet, brought out other complaints. Randy Cox of Lewiston, Idaho says Herbalife “destroyed my business” after he and his wife complained to the company that they were being cheated out of their money by higher-ups in the pyramid organization.
Will Hughes survive again? Don’t count on it this time.
6.Herbalife Inc is based in:
A.Los Angeles
B.Columbus
C.New York
D.Austin
Ans : A
7.Daniel Fallow:
A.Was a former attorney for Hughes
B.Was a former distributor of Herbalife
C.Co-founded Herbalife
D.Ran Herbalife’s German unit
Ans : B
8.The complaint of Randy Cox of Lewiston, Idaho, against Herbalife was:
A.The company did not pay them their dues
B.The products supplied by Hughes were inferior
C.Their higher-ups in the pyramid cheated them
D.Hughes had connections with the Russian mafia
Ans : C
9.In the year in which Hughes’ salary and bonuses came to US$ 7.3 million, what was the retail sales for Herbalife in France?
A.$12 million
B.$159 million
C.$54 million
D.$97 million
Ans :A
10.At the time when this article was written, if Herbalife had had a market capitalisation of $ 1 billion, what would have been Hughes’ share?
A. $420 million
B. $580 million
C. $125 million
D. $500 million
Ans : B
Directions for Questions 11-15:Read each sentence to find if there is any grammatical error in it. If there is any error, it will be only one part of the sentence. The number or alphabet of that part is your answer.( Disregard punctuation errors if any)
11. Modern film techniques / are far superior / than that / employed in the past /
A B C D
Ans:C
12. I believe / that respect / is more preferable than / money.
A B C D
Ans:C
13. The principals of equal justice / for all is one of / the corner stones of our / democratic way of life. / no error
A B C D E
Ans: A
14. In order to save patrol, / motorists must have to/ be very cautious/ while driving along the highways/ no error
A B C D E
Ans: B
15. Not one of the children / has ever sang/ on any occasion / in public before/ no error
A B C D E
Directions for Questions 16-20: In each of the following questions, some sentence are given which are on the same theme. decide which sentence is the most preferable with respect to grammar; meaning and usage, suitable for formal writing in English. Find the correct sentence.
16. A) He came in too quickly to avoid waking his father
B) He entered in quickly. so as not wake his father.
C) Having not to wake his father, he came in quickly
D) He came in very quickly so that he might avoid waking his father.
Ans : D
17 A) The teacher asked the student with a frown on his face, to leave the room B) The teacher asked with a
frown on his face the student to leave the room
Ans: C
18. A) Common people are rather impressed by the style of a speech than by its substance
B) Common people are impressed rather by the style of a speech than by its substance
C) Rather common people are impressed by the style of a speech than by its substance
D) Common people are impressed by the style of a speech than by its substance.
Ans: D
19. A) I have read such a lot about him that I am looking forward to seeing him very much
B) I am reading such a lot about him that I will be looking forward to seeing him very much
C) Having read such a lot about him that I will be looking forward to seeing him very much
D) I had read such a lot about him that I am looking forward to seeing him very much.
Ans: A
20. A) By June next year, Ajay will be twenty years working in the office.
B) Being twenty years completed, Ajay will be working in this office till June next
C) Till June next year, Ajay will work in the office for twenty years.
D) Ajay will be working in this office upon completing twenty years by next June.
Ans : D
Directions for Questions 21-25: In each of the following questions, a paragraph or a sentence has been broken up into different parts. The parts have been scrambled and numbered as given below. Choose the correct order of these parts from the given alternatives.
21. 1) her 2) she 3) to 4) cancel 5) dental 6) appointment
A) 2, 7, 3, 4, 1, 5, 6
B) 2, 7, 3, 1, 4, 5, 6
C) 1, 7, 3, 4, 5, 2, 6
D) 2, 1, 3, 4, 7, 5, 6
Ans: A
22. 1) all 2) I 3) the 4) keep 5) sneezing 6) time
A) 2, 4, 5, 3, 1, 6
B) 2, 4, 6, 5, 3, 1
C) 1, 4, 5, 2, 3, 6
D) 2, 4, 5, 1, 3, 6
Ans: D
23. 1) is 2) at 3) TV 4) film 5) midnight 6) a 7) on 8) great 9) There
A) 9, 1, 6, 8, 4, 7, 3, 5, 3
B) 9, 1, 6, 8, 4, 7, 3, 2, 5
C) 9, 6, 1, 8, 4, 7, 3, 2, 5
D) 9, 1, 6, 8, 7, 4, 3, 2, 5
Ans: B
24. 1) fifty 2) I 3)a 4)cheque 5) for 6)pounds 7)him 8)wrote
A) 2, 8, 7, 5, 4, 3, 1, 6
B) 2, 8, 7, 3, 4, 1, 5, 6
C) 2, 8, 7, 3, 4, 5, 1, 6
D) 2, 8, 7, 3, 4, 6, 5, 1
Ans: C
25. 1) quickly 2) hills 3) weather 4) change 5) the 6)can 7)the 8)in 9) very
A) 7, 3, 8, 5, 2, 6, 4, 9, 1
B) 1, 7, 3, 8, 5, 2, 6, 4, 9,
C) 1, 3, 8, 5, 2, 6, 4, 9, 7
D) 7, 3, 5, 8 2, 6, 4, 9, 1
Ans: A
ANALYTICAL section (25 Q’s – 30 mins)
Directions for Questions 1-5: Read the following information and answer the questions given below it:
Seven students P, Q, R, S, T, U and v take a series of tests. No two students get similar marks. V always scores more than P. P always scores more than Q. Each time either R scores the highest and T gets the least or alternatively S scores the highest and U or Q scores the least.
1.If S is ranked sixth and Q is ranked fifth, which of the following can be true?
A. V is ranked first or fourth B. R is ranked second or third
C. P is ranked second or fifth D. U is ranked third or fourth
E. T is ranked fourth or fifth.
Ans: D
2. If R gets more, V should be ranked not lower than:
A. second B. third C. fourth D. fifth E. sixth
Ans: C
3. If R is ranked second and Q is ranked fifth, which of the following must be true?
A. S is ranked third B. T is ranked sixth
C. P is ranked sixth D. V is ranked fourth
E. U is ranked sixth
Ans: B
4. If S is ranked second, which of the following can be true?
A. U gets more than V B. V gets more than S
C. P gets more than R D. P gets more than V
E. T gets more than Q
Ans: A
5. If V is ranked fifth, which of the following must be true?
A S scores the highest B. R is ranked second
C. T is ranked third D. Q is ranked fourth
E. U scores the least
Ans: A
Questions 6-10 :
6. You are having 31kg of rice. You are provided with a 1kg stone for weighing. In how many weights the
31kg of rice can be weighed. ?
Ans: 5
7. A starts at 11:00AM and travels at a speed of 4km/hr. B starts at 1:00PM and travels at 1km/hr for the first 1hr
and 2km/hr for the next hr and so on. At what time they will meet each other ?
Ans: 8:45 pm
8. There are 80 coins, among them one coin weighs less compared to other. You are given a physical balance to
weigh. In how many weighing the odd coin can be found.
Ans: 5
9. Dia of the circle 4cm. The shaded part is 1/3 of the square area. What is the side of the square.
Ans: root of 3pi
10. A,B,C, can do a work in 8,14,16 days respectively. A does the work for 2 days. B continues from it and finishes
till 25% of the remaining work. C finishes the remaining work. How many days would have taken to
complete the work?
Ans: 109/8
Directions for Questions 11-15 : Each question given below has a problem and two statements numbered I and II giving certain information. You have to decide if the information given in the statements are sufficient for answering the problem. Indicate your answer as
(a) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question;
(b) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question;
(c) if the data in either in I or II alone are sufficient to answer the question;
(d) if the data even in both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question;
(e) if the data in both the statements together are needed;
11. A) The report was useless to them because there was no needed information.
B) Since the report lacked needed information it would have not been useful to them.
C) Since the report did not contain the needed information it was not real useful to them
D) Bening that the report lacked the needed information, they could not use it.
E) since the report lacked needed information it was of no use to them.
Ans: E
12. A) Anitha was sitting with her husband on the steps of the temple with her lap full of newspapers, when Bunty
and Bittoo came up.
B) Anitha, with her lap full of newspapers, was sitting with her husband on the steps of the temple when Bunty
and Bittoo came up.
C) With her lap full of newspapers, Anitha was sitting with her husband on the steps of the temple when Bunty
and Bittoo came up.
D) Anitha was sitting with her husband on the steps of the temple when Bunty and Bittoo came up with her
lap full of news papers.
Ans: A
13. A) Since managers can motivate people in the tasks that need to be done by getting them involved.
B) The managers can motivate people in tasks by getting them involved that needs to be done
C) The managers not only do the tasks that need to be done by getting them involved but also can motivate
people.
D) People can be motivated by getting them involved in the tasks that need to be done by the managers
E) The managers can motivate people by getting them involved in the tasks that need to be done.
Ans: E
14. A) I went yesterday to the bank to collect the pass-book.
B) I went to the bank yesterday to collect the pass -book
C) Yesterday to collect the pass-book I went to the bank
D) To collect the pass-book yesterday I went to the bank
Ans: B
15. A) The early age of three or four years, would begin our first recollection of the world, for many of us.
B) Our first recollection of the world, for many of us, would be early age of three or four years.
C) For many of us, our first recollection of the world being the early age of only three or four years.
D) For many of us, our first recollection of the world has been the early age of only three or four years
E) For many of us, our first recollection of the world is from the early age of only three or four years.
Ans: A
Directions for Questions 16-20 :Convert the given binary numbers.
16. (10010100)2 = ( )8
Ans: (224)8
17. (11101111)2= ( )16
Ans: (EF) 16
18. (11010110)2= ( )10
Ans: ( 214 )10
19. (01101010)2 = ( )16
Ans: (6A) 16
20. (11000011001) 2 = (3 0C8 )16
Directions(21-25): A cube is coloured orange on one face , pink on the opposite face , brown on one face and silver on a face adjacent to the brown face. The other two faces are left uncoloured. It is then cut into 125 smaller cubes of equal size. Now, answer the following questions based on the above statements:
21. How many cubes have at least one face coloured pink ?
A. 1 B. 9 C. 16 D. 25
Ans: D
22. How many cubes have all the faces uncoloured ?
A. 24 B. 36 C. 48 D. 64
Ans: C
23. How many cubes have at least two faces coloured ?
A. 19 B. 20 C. 21 D. 23
Ans:C
24. How many cubes are coloured orange on one face and have the remaining faces uncoloured ?
A. 19 B. 12 C. 14 D. 16
Ans: D
25. How many cubes one coloured pink ?
A. 8 B. 10 C. 12 D. 16
Ans: A
REASONING section (20 Q’s – 20 mins)
Directions for Questions 1-4: In each questions below are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. read the conclusion and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer (A) if only conclusion I follows; (B) if only conclusion II follows; (C) if either I or II follows;
(D) if neither I nor II follows and (E) if both I and II follow.
1. Statements : All cars are tables
Some children are tables
Conclusions : I. Some cars are children
II. Some children are cars
Ans: D
2. Statements : Some doga bark
All dogs bite
Conclusions : I. Those dogs who do not bark, also bit.
II. Those dogs who do not bark, not necessary bite.
Ans: A.
3. Statements : No magazine is cap
All caps are cameras
Conclusions : I. No camera is magazine
II. Some caps are magazines
Ans: D
4.Statements : Lawyers married only fair girls
Shobha is very fair
Conclusions : I.Shobha is married to a lawyer.
II. Shobha was not married to a lawyer.
Ans : C
Directions for Questions 5-6: In each questions below are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. read the conclusion and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
5. Statements : Some coolers are watches
no watch is bed
Conclusions : I. No watch is cooler
II. No cooler is watch
III. Some watches are beds
IV. Some coolers are beds
A. None follows B. Only I and IV follow
C. Only either II or III follows C. Only either III or IV follows
E. Only either II or IV follows
Ans: A
6. Statements : Some frogs are bricks.
all bricks are cakes
Conclusions : I. Some cakes are not frogs.
II. Some cakes are frogs.
III. No cake is frog
IV. All frogs are cakes
A. None follows B. Only I and II follow
C. Only either I, II andr III follow C. Only II, III or IV follows
E. Only III and IV follow
Ans: B
Directions7-15:In each of the following questions one word is different from the rest. Find out the word which does not belong to the group
7. A) Handle B) Cycle C) Chain D) Break
Ans: B
8. A) Butchers B) Police Station C) Newsagents D) Opticians
Ans: B
9) A) TV B) FG C) KL D) PQ
Ans : (A)
10. A) Gloves B) Sandals C) Socks D) Shoes
Ans: A
11. A) ACEG B) MOQS C) GHJL D) RTVX
Ans : (C)
12. A) Kindergarten B) Office C) College D) University
Ans: B
13. A) Cow B) Pork C) Lamb D) Chicken
Ans: A
14. A) Bus B) Lorry C) Van D) Bicycle
Ans: D
15. A) Grape B) Orange C) Potato D) Lemon
Ans: C
16. There are five different houses. A to E, in a row. A is to the right of B and E is to the left of C and right of A. B is
to the right of D. Which of the houses is in the middle.
A) A B) B C) D D) E
Ans: A
17. Five girls are sitting in a row. Rashi is not adjacent to Sulekha or Abha. Anuradha is not adjacent to
Sulekha. Rashi is adjacent to Monika. Monika is at the middle in the row. Then, Anuradha is
adjacent to whom out of following?
A) Rashi B) Sulekha C) Abha D) Monika E) Cannot determined
Ans: A
18. You drive to the store at 20 mph and return by the same route at 30 mph. Discounting the time spent at the
store, what was your average speed?
Ans: 24 mph
19. Two trains travel toward each other on the same track, beginning 100 miles apart. One train travels at 40
miles per hour; the other travels at 60 miles an hour. A bird starts flight at the same location as the faster train,
flying at a speed of 90 miles per hour. When it reaches the slower train, it turns around, flying the other
direction at the same speed. When it reaches the faster train again, it turns around — and so on.
When the trains collide?
Ans: in one hour
20. There are several chickens and rabbits in a cage (with no other types of animals). There are 72 heads and
200 feet inside the cage. How many chickens are there, and how many rabbits?
Ans: 44 chickens and 28 rabbits
APTITUDE TEST
Questions = 70 ; time limit = 70 minutes… Correct answer carry one mark and wrong answer carry 0.25 marks. , Offline (paper & pen) test
VERBAL SECTION (25 questions-25min)
Directions for Questions 1-5: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow on the basis of the information provided in the passage.
Outside, the rain continued to run down the screened windows of Mrs. Sennett’s little Cape Cod cottage. The long weeds and grass that composed the front yard dripped against the blurred background of the bay, where the water was almost the color of the grass. Mrs. Sennett’s five charges were vigorously playing house in the dining room. (In the wintertime, Mrs. Sennett was housekeeper for a Mr. Curley, in Boston, and during the summers the Curley children boarded with her on the Cape.) My expression must have changed. ” Are those children making too much noise?” Mrs. Sennett demanded, a sort of wave going over her that might mark the beginning of her getting up out of her chair. I shook my head no, and gave her a little push on the shoulder to keep her seated. Mrs. Sennett was almost stone-deaf and had been for a long time, but she could read lips. You could talk to her without making any sound yourself, if you wanted to, and she more than kept up her side of the conversation in a loud, rusty voice that dropped weirdly every now and then into a whisper. She adored talking. To look at Mrs. Sennett made me think of eighteenth-century England and its literary figures. Her hair must have been sadly thin, because she always wore, indoors and out, either a hat or a sort of turban, and sometimes she wore both. The rims of her eyes were dark; she looked very ill. Mrs. Sennett and I continued talking. She said she really didn’t think she’d stay with the children another winter. Their father wanted her to, but it was too much for her. She wanted to stay right here in the cottage. The afternoon was getting along, and I finally left because I knew that at four o’clock Mrs. Sennett’s “sit down” was over and she started to get supper. At six o’clock, from my nearby cottage, I saw Theresa coming through the rain with a shawl over her head. She was bringing me a six-inch-square piece of spice cake , still hot from the oven and kept warm between two soup plates. A few days later I learned from the twins, who brought over gifts of firewood and blackberries, that their father was coming the next morning, bringing their aunt and her husband and their cousin. Mrs. Sennett had promised to take them all on a picnic at the pond some pleasant day. On the fourth day of their visit, Xavier arrived with a note. It was from Mrs. Sennett, written in blue ink, in a large, serene, ornamented hand, on linen-finish paper:. . . Tomorrow is the last day Mr. Curley has and the Children all wanted the Picnic so much. The Men can walk to the Pond but it is too far for the Children. I see your Friend has a car and I hate to ask this but could you possibly drive us to the Pond tomorrow morning? . . .Very sincerely yours, Carmen Sennett After the picnic, Mrs. Sennett’s presents to me were numberless. It was almost time for the children to go back to school in South Boston. Mrs. Sennett insisted that she was not going; their father was coming down again to get them and she was just going to stay. He would have to get another housekeeper. She said this over and over to me, loudly, and her turbans and kerchiefs grew more and more distrait. One evening, Mary came to call on me and we sat on an old table in the back yard to watch the sunset. “Papa came today, ” she said, “and we’ve got to go back day after tomorrow. “”Is Mrs. Sennett going to stay here? “”She said at supper she was. She said this time she really was, because she’d said that last year and came back, but now she means it .”I said, “Oh dear,” scarcely knowing which side I was on. “It was awful at supper. I cried and cried.”
“Did Theresa cry?”
“Oh, we all cried. Papa cried, too. We always do.”
“But don’t you think Mrs. Sennett needs a rest?”
“Yes, but I think she’ll come, though. Papa told her he’d cry every single night at supper if she didn’t,
and then we all did.”
The next day I heard that Mrs. Sennett was going back with them just to “help settle.”
She came over the following morning to say goodbye, supported by all five children. She was wearing her traveling
hat of black satin and black straw, with sequins. High and somber, above her ravaged face, it had quite a Spanishgrandee air.
“This isn’t really goodbye,” she said. “I’ll be backas soon as I get these bad, noisy children off my hands.”
But the children hung on to her skirt and tugged at her sleeves, shaking their heads frantically, silently saying,
“No! No! No!” to her with their puckered-up mouths
Following are some questions on this passage:
1. According to the narrator, Mrs. Sennett wears a hat because she:
A.is often outside.
B.wants to look like a literary figure.
C.has thin hair.
D.has unique taste in clothing.
Answer: C
2. Considering the events of the entire passage, it is most reasonable to infer that Mrs. Sennett calls the
children bad because she:
A.is bothered by the noise they are making.
B.doesn’t like them hanging on her skirt.
C.doesn’t want to reveal her affection for them.
D.is angry that they never do what she tells them.
Answer: C
3. What is the main insight suggested by the conversation in lines 69–83?
A.The Curley family cries to manipulate Mrs. Sennett into doing what they want.
B.The narrator regrets that she is not going to Boston and is a little jealous of Mrs. Sennett.
C.Mrs. Sennett is happy to leave the Curley family because they are always whining and crying.
D.Mrs. Sennett intends to return to the Cape soon because she has discovered that they have been manipulating and taking advantage of her.
Answer: A
4. Given the evidence provided throughout the passage, the children probably silently mouth the word “no”
because:
A.Mrs. Sennett has just called them bad, noisy children, and they are defending themselves.
B.they do not want to leave the Cape before the summer is over and are protesting.
C.they are letting the narrator know that Mrs. Sennett is thinking about returning to the Cape.
D.they are continuing their battle against Mrs. Sennett’s intention to return to the Cape.
Answer: D
5. At what point does Mr. Curley cry at the supper table?
A.Before Mary and the narrator sit and watch the sunset
B.Before Mrs. Sennett tells the narrator she doubts she will stay another winter with the children
C.Before the children spend a rainy afternoon playing house in the dining room
D.After the narrator learns that Mrs. Sennett will return to Boston
Answer: A
Directions for Questions 6-10: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow on the basis of the information provided in the passage.
From the 197 million square miles, which make up the surface of the globe, 71 per cent is covered by the interconnecting bodies of marine water; the Pacific Ocean alone covers half the Earth and averages near 14,000 feet in depth. The portions which rise above sea level are the continents-Eurasia, Africa; North America, South America, Australia, and Antarctica. The submerged borders of the continental masses are the continental shelves, beyond which lie the deep-sea basins.
The ocean are deepest not in the center but in some elongated furrows, or long narrow troughs, called deeps. These profound troughs have a peripheral arrangement, notably around the borders of the pacific and Indian oceans. The position of the deeps, like the highest mountains, are of recent origin, since otherwise they would have been filled with waste from the lands. This is further strengthened by the observation that the deeps are quite often, where world-shaking earthquakes occur. To cite an example, the “tidal wave” that in April, 1946, caused widespread destruction along Pacific coasts resulted from a strong earthquake on the floor of the Aleutian Deep.
The topography of the ocean floors is none too well known, since in great areas the available soundings are hundreds or even thousands of miles apart. However, the floor of the Atlantic is becoming fairly well known as a result of special surveys since 1920. A broad, well-defined ridge-the Mid-Atlantic ridge-runs north and south between Africa and the two Americas and numerous other major irregularities diversify the Atlantic floor. Closely spaced soundings show that many parts of the oceanic floors are as rugged as mountainous regions of the continents. Use of the recently perfected method of submarine topography. During world war II great strides were made in mapping submarine surfaces, particularly in many parts of the vast Pacific basin.
Most of the continents stand on an average of 2870 feet above sea level. North America averages 2300 feet; Europe averages only 1150 feet; and Asia, the highest of the larger continental subdivisions, averages 3200 feet. Mount Everest, which is the highest point in the globe, is 29,000 feet above the sea; and as the greatest known depth in the sea is over 35,000 feet, the maximum relief (that is, the difference in altitude between the lowest and highest points) exceeds 64,000 feet, or exceeds 12 miles. The continental masses and the deep-sea basins are relief features of the first order; the deeps, ridges, and volcanic cones that diversify the sea floor, as well as the plains, plateaus, and mountains of the continents, are relief features of the second order. The lands are unendingly subject to a complex of activities summarized in the term erosion, which first sculptures them in great detail and then tends to reduce them ultimately to sea level. The modeling of the landscape by weather, running water, and other agents is apparent to the keenly observant eye and causes thinking people to speculate on what must be the final result of the ceaseless wearing down of the lands. Much before there was any recognizable science as geology, Shakespeare wrote “the revolution of the times makes mountains level.”
6. The peripheral furrows or deeps are found
A.only in the pacific and Indian oceans
B.near earthquakes
C.near the shore
D.in the center of the ocean
E.to be 14,000 feet in depth in the pacific.
Ans : C
7. We may conclude from this passage that earth quakes
A.Occur more frequently in newly formed land or sea formations
B.Are caused by the weight of the water
C.Cause erosion
D.Occur in the deeps
E.Will ultimately “make mountains level”.
Ans : A
8. The highest mountains are
A.oldest
B.in excess of 12 miles
C.near the deeps
D.relief features of the first order
E.of recent origin.
Ans : E
9. The highest point on North America is
A.2870 feet above sea level
B.not mentioned in the passage
C.higher than the highest point in Europe
D.2300 feet above sea level
E.in Mexico.
Ans : B
10. The deeps are subject to change caused by
A.erosion
B.soundings
C.earthquakes
D.waste
E.weathering
Ans : C
Directions for Questions 11-15:Read each sentence to find if there is any grammatical error in it. If there is any error, it will be only one part of the sentence. The number or alphabet of that part is your answer.( Disregard punctuation errors if any)
11.The firm show / began / when we arrived / in the hall/no error
A B C D E
Ans:B
12. No sooner the news appeared in the paper/ than / there was a rush / in the counter/ no error
A B C D E
Ans:A
13. Unlike the other/ rich men of his community,/ he does not look/ down upon the poor/ no error
A B C D E
Ans:E
14. His supporters are / not as enthusiastic / and co-operative as / that of his opponent’s/ no error
A B C D E
Ans: D
15. Our company can / no longer afford / over-manned unit as/; out profit has lower./ no error
A B C D E
Ans: D
Directions for Questions 16-20: In each of the following questions, some sentence are given which are on the same theme. decide which sentence is the most preferable with respect to grammar; meaning and usage, suitable for formal writing in English. Find the correct sentence.
16. A) Without your help must try to carry out my task alone.
B) Barring your help I should try to carry out my task alone
C) Besides help from you, I must try to carry out my task alone.
D) Failing your help I must try to carry out my task alone
Ans: D
17. A) Since the dividend being declared than the notices were prepared for mailing.
B) Scarcely had the dividend been declared than the notices were sent out.
C) They had no sooner declared the dividend when they sent the notices to the stockholders.
D) No sooner than the dividend been prepared for mailing.
E) The company hardly declared the dividend till the notices were prepared for mailing
Ans: D
18. A) Many works must close owing to lack of fuel, if the strike lasts till the weekend.
B) If the strike lasts for the weekend, owing to lack of fuel many works must close.
C) Owing to lack of fuel, many works must close if the strike lasts over the weekend.
D) Having the strike lasting to the weekend, many works close for lack of fuel.
Ans: C
19. A) As one travels from Karjat to Khandala, be finds the line most beautifully laid.
B) Travelling from Karjat to Khandala, one finds the line most beautifully laid
C) While travelling from Karjat to Khandala, one would find the line most beautifully laid
D) Ifone travels from Karjat to Khandala, he will find the line most beautifully laid
Ans: B
20. A) Nobody will want to play in his team if he does not treat people kindly
B) If he does not treat people kindly, nobody will play to want his team
C) Nobody will treat people kindly, he does not want to play in this team
D) Nobody will want to treat people, if he does not play in his team kindly.
Ans: A
Directions for Questions 21-25: In each of the following questions, a paragraph or a sentence has been broken up into different parts. The parts have been scrambled and numbered as given below. Choose the correct order of these parts from the given alternatives.
21. 1) you can take
2) you can’t take
3) the boy
4) the village
5) out of the village
6) out of the boy
7) but
A) 1,3,5,7,2,4,6 B) 1,5,2,6,3,7,4 C) 1,6,5,3,7,2,4 D) 1,7,2,4,3,5,6
Ans: A
22. 1) food supply
2) storage, distribution and handling
3) pastoral industry and fishing
4) besides increasing
5) by preventing wastage in
6) the productivity from agriculture
7)can be increased
A) 1,7,5,2,4,3,6 B) 4,1,6,7,5,3,2 C) 4,6,3,1,7,5,2 D) 6,3,5,7,4,1,2
Ans: C
23. 1) in some of the developed countries
2) in the developing countries
3) mostly in the form of beef, pork etc.
4) about 180 kilograms
5) per capita consumption is
6) of grain per capita annually
7) the people
8) five times that amount
9) consume only
A) 1,7,9,4,6,2,5,8,3 B) 2,5,8,2,7,9,4,6,3 C) 7,2,9,4,6,1,5,8,3 D) 5,8,1,2,7,9,4,6,3
Ans: C
24. 1) The African elephant is usually larger
2) being about three and a half metres in hight
3) than the Indian
4) and 6000 kg in weight
5) It has enormous ears
6) which are valued for the ivory
7) and very long tusks
8) that they contain
A) 1,3,2,4,5,7,6,8 B) 1,4,2,3,6,5,8,7 C) 5,3,6,2,7,4,1,8 D) 5,6,2,4,1,3,7,8
Ans: A
25. 1) not only for
2) but also for
3) lumbering
4) construction purposes
5) as an occupation
6) on modern lines
7) the manufacture of wood pulp, paper , resins etc.
8) owing to the great demand for timber
9) has developed
A) 3,9,6,5,8,1,4,2,7 B) 3,8,9,5,6,1,7,2,4 C) 3,5,9,6,8,1,4,2,7 D) 5,3,9,6,8,1,7,2,4
Ans: C
ANALYTICAL section (25 Q’s – 30 mins)
Directions for Questions 1-5: In each of the following questions, there are three words which are related in some way. The relationship in each case is indicated by one of the four alternatives (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below. The alternative which best states the relationship is the answer.
(a) P includes part of Q and part of R but Q and R are independent of each other.
(b) P includes Q and part of R but Q is independent of R.
(c) P,Q and R include parts of one another
(d) P includes both Q and R
1. Wheat, Loaf, Barley
Ans: A
2. Singer, Writer, Actor
Ans: C
3. Soldier, Army, engineer
Ans: A
4. Tiger, Elephant, Quadruped
Ans: D
5. Researcher, historian, scholar.
Ans:C
Questions 6-10 :
6. The total no. of numbers that are divisible by 2 or 3 between 100 and 200(both inclusive) are
Ans:67
7. From a pack of cards Jack, Queen, King & ace are removed. Then the algebraic sum of rest of the cards is
Ans:216
8. The average temperature of days from Monday to Wednesday is 37 degree Celsius and that of from Tuesday
to Thursday is 34 degrees. The temperature of Thursday is 4/5th of Monday. Then the temperature of
Thursday is
Ans: 36 degrees
9. B is 50% faster than A. If A starts at 9 A.M. and B starts at 10 A.M. A travels at a speed of 50 km/hr.
If A and B are 300 kms apart, The time when they meet when they travel in opposite direction is ?
Ans:12 noon
10. A cube of 12 mm is painted on all its side. If it is made up of small cubes of size 3mm. If the big cube is
splitted into those small cubes, the number of cubes that remain unpainted is
Ans: 8
Directions for Questions 11-15 : Each question given below has a problem and two statements numbered I and II giving certain information. You have to decide if the information given in the statements are sufficient for answering the problem. Indicate your answer as
(a) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question;
(b) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question;
(c) if the data in either in I or II alone are sufficient to answer the question;
(d) if the data even in both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question;
(e) if the data in both the statements together are needed;
11. How many new year’s greeting cards were sold this year in your shop?
I. Last year 2935 cards were sold
II The number of cards sold this year was 1.2 times that of last year.
Ans: E
12. Hemant ranks tenth in a class . How many students are there in the class?
I. His friend got 58th rank which is the last.
II Hemant’s rank from the last 49th
Ans: C
13. In a code, ‘lee pee tin’ means ‘ Always keep smiling’ . What is the code for ‘smiling’.
I. ‘tin lut lee’ means ‘ Always keep left’
II ‘dee pee’ means ‘rose smiling’
Ans: C
14. At what time did sonali leave her home for office ?
I. Sonali received a phone call at her home
II Sonali’s car reached office at 10.15 AM , 45 minutes after she left her home
Ans: B
15. A, B, C, D and E are sitting ina row. B is between A and e. Who among them is in the middle ?
I. A is left of B and right of D
II C is at the right end
Ans: E
Directions for Questions 16-20 :Convert the given binary numbers.
16. (1000 1111)2 = ( )10
Ans: (143)10
17 ( 10 1011 0001)2 = ( )16
Ans: (2B1) 16
18. ( 1100 1110 0001)2 = ( )16
Ans: (CE1)16
19. (1 1101)2 = ( )10
Ans: (29)10
20 (10 1011 1111 1001) 2 =( )16
Ans:(2BF9)16
Directions(21-25): A solid cube of each side 8cms, has been painted red , blue , black on pairs of opposite faces.It
is then cut into cubical blocks of each side 2cms.
21. How many cubes have only one face painted?
A) 8 B) 16 C) 24 D) 28
Ans:C
22. How many cubes have 3 faces painted?
A) 0 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8
Ans:D
23. How many cubes have two faces painted red and black and all other faces unpainted?
A) 4 B) 8 C) 16 D) 32
Ans:B
24. How many cubes have 2 faces painted black?
A) 2 B) 4 C) 8 D) None
Ans:D
25. How many cubes are there in all
A) 64 B) 56 C) 40 D) 32
Ans:A
REASONING section (20 Q’s – 20 mins)
Directions for Questions 1-4: In each questions below are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. read the conclusion and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer (A) if only conclusion I follows; (B) if only conclusion II follows; (C) if either I or II follows;
(D) if neither I nor II follows and (E) if both I and II follow.
1. Statements : Some papers are files.
Some files are pens.
Conclusions : I some files are not pens.
II. Some pens are papers.
Ans: D
2. Statements : All locks are keys
No key is a spoon
Conclusions : I No lock is a spoon
II. No spoon is a lock
Ans: A
3. Statements : Some bottles are pencils
Some pencils are glasses
Conclusions : I No glass is bottle
II. Some bottles are glasses
Ans: D
4. Statements : Sohan is a good sportsman
sportsmen are healthy.
Conclusions : I All healthy persons are sportsmen.
II. Sohan is healthy.
Ans: D
Directions for Questions 5-6: In each questions below are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. read the conclusion and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
5. Statements : All green are blue.
All blue are white.
Conclusions : I Some blue are green.
II. Some white are green
III Some green are not white
III. All white are blue.
A) Only I and II follow B) Only I and III follow.
C) Only I and IV follow. D) Only II and IV follow
E) All follow.
Ans: A
6. Statements : No parrot is crow
All crows are bats.
Conclusions : I Some bats are parrots
II. All bats are parrots
III. Some bats are crows
IV Some bats are not crows
A) None follow s B) Only I and II follow.
C) Only I , II and III follow. D) Only II, III and IV follow
E) Only III and IV follow
Ans: E
Directions 7-15: In each of the following questions one word is different from the rest. Find out the word which
does not belong to the group
7. A) CE B) HK C) SQ D) MN E) WZ
Ans : D
8. A) Jupiter B) Sky C) Star D) Moon E) Sun
Ans : B
9. A) Shoulder B) Foot C) Elbow D) Arm
Ans: B
10. A) Nephrology B) Entomology C) Astrology D) Pathology
Ans: C
11. A) Kiwi B) Eagle C) Emu D) Ostrich
Ans: B
12. A) Pineapple B) Orange C) Malta D) Banana
Ans: D
13. A) Kwashioror B) Cretinism C) Marasmus D) Gcitre
Ans: D
14. A) hireling B) Cub C) Duckling D) Calf
Ans: A
15. A) KMNO B) ABDE C) PRST D) UWXY
Ans : (B)
16. Four girls are sitting on a bench to be photographed . Shikha is to the left of Reena. Manju is to the Right of reena .
Rita is between Reena and manju. who would be second from the left in the photograph ?
A) Reena B) Shikha C) Manju D) Rita
Ans: D
17. Five persons A, B, C, D and E are sitting in a row facing you such that D is on the left of D. If E occupies a
corner position , then who is sitting in the center ?
A) A B) B C) C D) D
Ans: D
18. At a family reunion were the following people: one grandfather, one grandmother, two fathers, two mothers,
four children, three grandchildren, one brother, two sisters, two sons, two daughters, one father-in-law, one
mother-in-law, and one daughter-in-law. But not as many people attended as it sounds. How many were there ?
Ans: 7
19. 97 baseball teams participate in an annual state tournament. The champion is chosen for this tournament by the
usual elimination scheme. That is, the 97 teams are divided into pairs, and the two teams of each pair play
against each other. The loser of each pair is eliminated, and the remaining teams are paired up again, etc.
How many games must be played to determine a champion?
Ans: 96
20. A mountain goat attempts to scale a cliff sixty feet high. Every minute, the goat bounds upward three feet but
slips back two. How long does it take for the goat to reach the top .
Ans: 58 minutes
APTITUDE TEST
Questions = 70 ; time limit = 70 minutes… Correct answer carry one mark and wrong answer carry 0.25 marks., Offline (paper & pen) test
VERBAL SECTION (25 questions-25min)
Directions for Questions 1-5: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow on the basis of the information provided in the passage.
For a period of more than two centuries paleontologists have been intrigued by the fossilized remains of pterosaurs, the first flying vertebrates. The issues, which puzzle them, are how these heavy creatures, having a wingspan of about 8-12 meters managed the various problems associated with powered flight and whether these creatures were reptiles or birds.
Perhaps the least controversial assertion about the pterosaurs is that they were reptiles. Their skulls, pelvises, and hind feet are reptilian. The anatomy of their wings suggests that they did not evolve into the class of birds. In pterosaurs a greatly elongated fourth finger of each forelimb supported a winglike membrane. The other fingers were short and reptilian, with sharp claws. In birds the second finger is the principal strut of the wing, which consists primarily of feathers. If the pterosaurs walked on all fours, the three short fingers may have been employed for grasping. When a pterosaurs walked or remained stationary, the fourth finger, and with it the wing, could only urn upward in an extended inverted V- shape along each side of the animal’s body.
In resemblance they were extremely similar to both birds and bats, with regard to their overall body structure and proportion. This is hardly surprising as the design of any flying vertebrate is subject to aerodynamic constraints. Both the pterosaurs and the birds have hollow bones, a feature that represents a savings in weight. There is a difference, which is that the bones of the birds are more massively reinforced by internal struts.
Although scales typically cover reptiles, the pterosaurs probably had hairy coats. T.H. Huxley reasoned that flying vertebrates must have been warm-blooded because flying implies a high rate of metabolism, which in turn implies a high internal temperature. Huxley speculated that a coat of hair would insulate against loss of body heat and might streamline the body to reduce drag in flight. The recent discovery of a pterosaur specimen covered in long, dense, and relatively thick hair like fossil material was the first clear evidence that his reasoning was correct.
Some paleontologists are of the opinion that the pterosaurs jumped from s dropped from trees or perhaps rose into the light winds from the crests of waves in order to become airborne. Each theory has its associated difficulties. The first makes a wrong assumption that the pterosaurs hind feet resembled a bat’s and could serve as hooks by which the animal could hang in preparation for flight. The second hypothesis seems unlikely because large pterosaurs could not have landed in trees without damaging their wings. The third calls for high aces to channel updrafts. The pterosaurs would have been unable to control their flight once airborne as the wind from which such waves arose would have been too strong.
1.As seen in the above passage scientists generally agree that:
A.the pterosaurs could fly over large distances because of their large wingspan.
B.a close evolutionary relationship can be seen between the pterosaurs and bats, when the structure of their skeletons is studied.
C.the study of the fossilized remains of the pterosaurs reveals how they solved the problem associated with powered flight
D.the pterosaurs were reptiles
E.Pterosaurs walked on all fours.
Answer : D
2.As inferred from the passage, the skeleton of a pterosaur is distinguishable from that of a bird by the
A.length of its wingspan
B.hollow spaces in its bones
C.anatomic origin of its wing strut
D.evidence of the hooklike projections on its hind feet
E.location of the shoulder joint joining the wing to its body.
Answer : C
3.From the viewpoint of T.H.Huxley, as given in the passage, which of the following statements is he most likely to agree with?
A.An animal can master complex behaviors irrespective of the size of it’s brain.
B.Environmental capabilities and physical capabilities often influence the appearance of an animal.
C.Usually animals in a particular family group do not change their appearance dramatically over a period of time
D.The origin of flight in vertebrates was an accidental development rather than the outcome of specialization or adaption
E.The pterosaurs should be classified as birds, not reptiles.
Answer : B
4.The organization of the last paragraph of the passage can best be described as:
A.New data is introduced in order to support a traditional point of view
B.Three explanations are put forth and each of them is disputed by means of specific information
C.An outline of three hypotheses are given and evidence supporting each of them is given
D.Description of three recent discoveries is presented, and their implications for future study are projected
E.The material in the earlier paragraphs is summarized and certain conclusions are from it.
Answer : B
5.According to the passage, some scientists believe that pterosaurs
A.Lived near large bodies of water
B.Had sharp teeth for tearing food
C.Were attacked and eaten by larger reptiles
D.Had longer tails than many birds
E.Consumed twice their weight daily to maintain their body temperature.
Answer : A
Directions for Questions 5-10: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow on the basis of the information provided in the passage.
After his father’s death, writer Laurence Yep returned to San Francisco to look for the apartment house where his family had lived, which also housed their grocery store. It had been replaced by a two-story parking garage for a nearby college. There were trees growing where the store door had been. I had to look at the street signs on the corner to make sure I was in the right spot. Behind the trees was a door of solid metal painted a battleship gray Stretching to either side were concrete walls with metal grates bolted over the openings in the sides. The upper story of the garage was open to the air but through the grates I could look into the lower level. The gray, oil-stained concrete spread onward endlessly, having replaced the red cement floor of our store. Lines marked parking places where my parents had laid wooden planks to ease the ache and chill on their feet. Where the old-fashioned glass store counter had been was a row of cars. I looked past the steel I-beams that formed the columns and ceiling of the garage, peering through the dimness in an attempt to locate where my father’s garden had been; but there was only an endless stretch of cars within the painted stalls. We called it the garden though that was stretching the definition of the word
because it was only a small, narrow cement courtyard on the north side of our apartment house. There was only a brief time during the day when the sun could reach the tiny courtyard; but fuchsia bushes, which loved the shade, grew as tall as trees from the dirt plot there. Next to it my father had fashioned shelves from old hundred-pound rice cans and planks; and on these makeshift shelves he had his miniature flower patches growing in old soda pop crates from which he had removed the wooden dividers. He would go out periodically to a wholesale nursery by the beach and load the car with boxes full of little flowers and seedlings which he would lovingly transplant in his shadowy garden. If you compared our crude little garden to your own backyards, you would probably laugh; and yet the cats in the neighborhood loved my father’s garden almost as much as he did–to his great dismay The cats loved to roll among the flowers, crushing what were just about the only green growing things in the area. Other times, they ate them-perhaps as a source of greens. Whatever the case, my father could have done without their destructive displays of appreciation. I don’t know where my father came by his love of growing things. He had come to San Francisco as a boy and, except for a brief time spent picking fruit, had lived most of his life among cement, brick, and asphalt. I hadn’t thought of my father’s garden in years; and yet it was the surest symbol of my father. Somehow he could persuade flowers to grow within the old, yellow soda pop crates though the sun seldom touched them; and he could coax green shoots out of what seemed like lifeless sticks. His was the gift of renewal. However, though I stared and stared, I could not quite figure out where it had been. Everything looked the same; more concrete and more cars. Store, home and garden had all been torn down and replaced by something as cold, massive and impersonal as a prison. Even if I could have gone through the gate, there was nothing for me inside there. If I wanted to return to that lost garden, I would have to go back into my own memories. Award-winning author Laurence Yep did return to his father’s garden in his memories. In 1991 he published The Lost Garden an autobiography in which he tells of growing up in San Francisco and of coming to use his writing to celebrate his family and his ethnic heritage.
6.The author is searching for something as he looks through the window of a parking garage. What is he searching for?
A.A particular car
B.The red cement floor of an old store
C.Reminders of the past
D.Evidence of his father’s financial success
Ans: C
7.What kind of work did the author’s father do?
A.He was a professional gardener
B.He worked in a parking garage.
C.He owned a restaurant.
D.He owned a store.
Ans:D
8.What idea does the story suggest about the author’s parents?
A.They both worked hard to support their family
B.They had encouraged their son to become a writer
C.They had not wanted to see a parking garage replace their home.
D.They had been farmers most of their lives.
Ans:C
9.What do you know about the father’s garden?
A.It grew in spite of being neglected.
B.The cats would eat all the plants before they grew
C.It flourished in an unlikely spot.
D.It didn’t grow well because of lack of sun.
Ans:D
10.Why are details about the neighborhood cats included in this story?
A.To show how much the garden meant to the family.
B.To show how important this garden was to the author’s father.
C.To show how had the author worked at helping his father.
D.To show that the author’s father loved animals as well as plants.
Directions for Questions 11-12:Read each sentence to find if there is any grammatical error in it. If there is any error, it will be only one part of the sentence. The number or alphabet of that part is your answer.( Disregard punctuation errors if any)
11. I shall / ring him / tomorrow / in the afternoon.
A B C D
Ans: B
12. I enjoyed / during my / stay in / England.
A B C D
Ans:A
Directions for Questions 13-15: one of the four sentences given in each question is grammatically wrong . Find the incorrect sentence.
13. A) the odds are against him.
B) Let me thread the needle .
C) A nurse is taking care of him.
D) I don’t know if snow is falling.
Ans. D
14. A) Let me put my sign here.
B) These cattle are mine.
c) He examined the book closely.
D) He has no knowledge of and no interest in music.
Ans: A
15. A) He has no desire for fame.
B) I intend going to Calcutta.
C) He is too miserly to part with his money.
D) He has invited me for dinner.
Ans: C
Directions for Questions 16-20: In each of the following questions, some sentence are given which are on the same theme. decide which sentence is the most preferable with respect to grammar; meaning and usage, suitable for formal writing in English. Find the correct sentence.
16. A. Our school had won the match if only we have concentrated .
B. Our school would have won the match if only we would have concentrated.
C. Our school would win the match if only we had concentrated.
D. Our school had won the match if only we would have concentrated.
E. Our school would have won the match if only we had concentrated.
Ans: E
17. A. He will not pay unless he is not compelled
B. He will not pay unless he will be compelled .
C . He will not pay unless he is compelled
D. he will not pay till he i s compelled.
Ans: C
18. A. Since he lacked needed money , he never turned down anyone who needed help.
B. He wasn’t rich by any means, although he never turned down anyone who needed help.
C. Being not rich by any means, but he never turned away anyone who needed help.
D. He wasn’t rich by any means, but he never turned away anyone who needed help.
E. Since he wasn’t rich by any means, he never turned away anyone who needed help.
Ans: D
19. A) I was asked to stop writing.
B) She denied to go with me.
C) My hairs stood on end.
D) I am reading this novel for four days.
Ans. D
20. A. The teacher asked the student with a frown on his face, to leave the room.
B. The teacher asked with a frawn on his face the student to leave the room.
C. With a frawn on his face, the teacher asked the student to leave the room.
D. The teacher asked the student to leave the room with a frawn on his face .
Ans: C
Directions for Questions 21-25: In each of the following questions, a paragraph or a sentence has been broken up into different parts. The parts have been scrambled and numbered as given below. Choose the correct order of these parts from the given alternatives.
21. 1) is decidedly harmful
2) disregarding other equally important aspects,
3) to the total neglect of others
4) in the life of a man or a woman
5) is not wisdom but
6) cultivating only one quality
7) giving all attention and energy to one aspect of national life only,
8) folly
9). similarly in the life of a nation.
A) 4,6,2,5,8,9,7,1,3 B) 4,6,3,1,9,7,2,5,8
C) 6,2,4,5,1,9,7,3,8 D) 6,4,2,1,9,7,3,5,8
Ans: B
22 1) Zealand 2) islands 3) Australia 4) of 5) new 6) consist 7) both 8) and 9) two
A) 2,4,3,6,5,7,1,8,9 B) 5,1, 8 3,7,6,9,2,4
C) 5,1,8,3,7,6,4,9,2 D) 5,1,8,2,3,7,6,4,9
Ans: C
23. 1) Pentium 4 2) any 3) conflicts. 4) handle 5) It seems 6)can 7)that 8)without 9) it
A) 5, 7, 1, 4, 6, 9, 8, 3, 2 B) 5, 7, 2, 4, 6, 8, 9, 1, 3
C) 5, 7, 1, 4, 6, 9, 8, 2, 3 D) 5, 7, 1, 6, 4, 9, 8, 2, 3
Ans: D
24. 1) language 2) of 3) two 4) the 5) official 6)countries 7) is 8) English 9) the
A) 8, 7, 4, 5, 1, 2, 9, 3, 6 B) 8, 7, 1, 5, 4, 2, 9, 3, 6
C) 8, 7, 4, 1, 5, 2 9, 3, 6 D) 8, 7, 4, 5, 1, 9, 2, 3, 6
Ans: A
25. 1) two 2) there 3) some 4) however 5) countries 6) between 7) are 8) differences 9) the
A) 4, 2, 8, 3, 7, 6, 9, 1, 5 B) 4, 2, 5, 3, 8, 6, 9, 1, 7,
C) 4, 2, 7, 3, 8, 6, 9, 1, 5 D) 4, 2, 7, 3, 8, 6, 9, 1, 5,
Ans: C
ANALYTICAL section (25 Q’s – 30 mins)
Questions 1-5:
1. Out of forty students, there are 14 who are taking Physics and 29 who are taking Calculus. What is the
probability that a randomly chosen student from this group is taking only the Calculus class?
Ans: 0.6 = 60%.
2. In town of 500 people, 285 read Hindu and 212 read Indian express and 127read Times of India 20 read
Hindu and times of India and 29 read hindu and Indian express and 35 read times of India and Indian express.
50 read no news paper. Then how many read only one paper?
Ans: 45
3. In a group of persons travelling in a bus, 6 persons can speak Tamil, 15 can speak Hindi and 6 can speak Gujarati.
In that group , none can speak any other language. If 2 persons in the group can speak two languages and one
person can speak all the three languages, then how many persons are there in the group ?
A) 21 B) 23 C) 22 D)24
Ans: B
4. Out of a total of 120 musicians in a club , 5% can play all the three instruments- Guitar, violin and Flute. It so
happens that the number of musicians who can play any two and only two of the above instruments is 30.
The number of musicians who can play the guitar alone is 40. What is the total number of those who can
play violin alone or flute alone ?
A) 30 B) 38 C) 44 D) 45
Ans: C
5. In a town 65% people watched the news on television , 40% read a newspaper and 25% read a
newspaper and watched the news on television also. What percent of the people neither watched the
news on television nor read a news paper ?
A) 5 B) 10 C) 15 D) 20
Ans: D
Questions 6-10 :
6. A secret can be told only 2 persons in 5 minutes .the same person tells to 2 more persons and so on . How long will take to tell it to 768 persons ?
a)47.5 min b)50 min c) 500 min d)49 min
Ans: 47.5 min
7. When I was married 10 years ago my wife is the 6th member of the family. Today my father died and a baby
born to me.The average age of my family during my marriage is same as today. What is the age of Father
when he died?
Ans: 70.
8. A son and father goes for boating in river upstream . After rowing for 1 mile son notices the hat of his father
falling in the river. After 5 min. he tells his father that his hat has fallen. So they turn round and are able to pick
the hat at the point from where they began boating after 5min. Tell the speed of river?
Ans: 6 miles/hr
9. There are three departments having students 64,58,24 .In an exam they have to be seated in rooms such that
each room has equal number of students and each room has students of one type only (No mixing of
departments. Find the minimum number rooms required ?
Ans : 73
10. Argentina had football team of 22 player of which captain is from Brazilian team and goalki from European
team. For remaining player they have picked 6 from Argentinean and 14 from European. Now for a team of 11
they must have goalki and captain so out of 9 now they plan to select 3 from Argentinean and 6 from European.
Find out number of methods available for it.
Ans : 160600( check out for right no. 6C3 * 14C6)
Directions for Questions 11-15 : Each question given below has a problem and two statements numbered I and II giving certain information. You have to decide if the information given in the statements are sufficient for answering the problem. Indicate your answer as
(a) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question;
(b) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question;
(c) if the data in either in I or II alone are sufficient to answer the question;
(d) if the data even in both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question;
(e) if the data in both the statements together are needed;
11. How many visitors saw the exhibition yesterday?
I. Each entry pass holder can take up to three persons with him / her.
II. In all, 243 passes were sold yesterday.
Ans:D
12. How much was the total sale of the company?
I. The company sold 8000 units of product A each costing Rs. 25.
II. The company has no other product line
Ans: E
13. In what proportion would Raj, Karan and Altaf distribute profit among them
I. Raj gets two-fifth of the profit.
II. Karan and Althaf have made 75% of the total investment.
Ans: D
14. What time did the train leave today.
I. The train normally leaves on time
II. The scheduled departure is at 14.30.
Ans: D
15. On which day in January, Subhas left for Germany?
I. Subhas has so far spent 10 years in Germany.
II. Subhas’ friend Anil left for Germany on 15th February and joined Subhas 20 days after Subhas’ arrival.
Ans: D.
Directions for Questions 16-20 :Convert the given binary numbers.
16. (1110 0111)2 = ( )16
Ans: (E7)16
17. (01011010)2=( )8
Ans: (132)8
18. (11110000)2= ( )10
Ans:(240)10
19. (11000101010000111)2=( )16
Ans: (18A87)16
20. (01001110)2 = ( )8
Ans: (116)8
Directions(21-25): a cube is coloured orange on one face , pink on the opposite face, brown on one face and silver on a face adjacent to the brown face. The other two faces are left uncoloured. It is then cut into 125 smaller cubes of equal size. now, answer the following questions based on the above statements:
21. How many cubes have at least one face coloured pink ?
A) 1 B)9 C) 16 D) 25
Ans:D
22. How many cubes have all the faces uncoloured ?
A) 24 B)36 C) 48 D) 64
Ans:C
23. How many cubes have atleast two faces coloured ?
A) 19 B)20 C) 21 D) 23
Ans:C
24 How many cubes are coloured orange on one face and have the remaining faces incoloured ?
A) 8 B) 12 C) 14 D) 16
Ans:D
25 How many cubes one coloured silver on one face , orange or pink on another face and have four
uncoloured faces ?
A) 8 B) 10 C) 12 D) 16
Ans:A
REASONING section (20 Q’s – 20 mins)
Directions for Questions 1-4: In each questions below are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. read the conclusion and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer (A) if only conclusion I follows; (B) if only conclusion II follows; (C) if either I or II follows;
(D) if neither I nor II follows and (E) if both I and II follow.
1. Statements : Some shirts are biscuits
No biscuit is book
Conclusions : I Some shirts are books
II. Some books are biscuits
Ans: D.
2. Statements : No women can vote
Some women are politicians
Conclusions : I Male politicians can vote
II. Some politicians can vote
Ans: D
3. Statements : No man is a donkey
Rahul is a man
Conclusions : I Rahul is not a donkey.
II.All men are not Rahul
Ans: A
4. Statements : All poles are guns
Some boats are not ploes
Conclusions : I All guns are boats
II. Some boats are not guns
Ans: D
Directions for Questions 5-6: In each questions below are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. read the conclusion and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
5. Statements : All rats are cows
No cow is white.
Conclusions : I No white is rat.
II. No rat is white
III. Some whites are rats
IV All cows are rats
A) None follows B) Only I and IV follow.
C) Only II and IV follow. D) Only IV follow
E) None of these
Ans: E
6. Statements : All apples are brinjals
All brinjals are ladyfingures
All ladyfingures are oranges
Conclusions : I. Some oranges are brinjals
II.All brinjals are apples
III. some apples are oranges
IV All ladyfingures are apples
A) None follows B) All follow
C) Only I and III follow D) Either I or III follows
E) None of these
Ans: A.
Directions(7-15): In each of the following questions one word is different from the rest. Find out the word which does not belong to the group
7. (A) Ginger (B) Tomato (C) Carrot (D) Beet (E) Potato
Ans : B
8. (A) BFD (B) NRP (C) HLG (D) QUS (E) UYW
Ans : (C)
9. (A) ML (B) TS (C) FG (D) PO (E) XW
Ans : (C)
10. (A) Cheese (B) Butter (C) Ghee (D) Milk (E) Curd
Ans : (D)
11. (A) GTSH (B) BYXC (C) ETUF (D) LONM (E) KPIR
Ans : (C)
12. (A) PQ (B) CD (C) MN (D) DF (E) RS
Ans : (D)
13. (A) FLOK (B) CROWD (C) HERD (D) SWARM (E) TEAM
Ans : (E)
14. (A) 64 (B) 54 (C) 42 (D) 31 (E) 20
Ans: D
15. A) mania B) pneumonia C) Influenza D) Cholera
ANS: A
16. Five children are sitting in a row. S is sitting next to P but not T. K is sitting next to R who is sitting on the extreme
left and T is not sitting next to K. Who are sitting adjacent to S?
A) K and P B) R and P C) Only P D) P and T E) Insufficient Information.
Ans: D
17. In the Olympic Games, the flags of six nations were flown on the masts in the following way. The flag of America
was to the left of Indian tricolour and to the right of the flag of France. The flag of Australia was on the right of the
Indian flag but was to the left of the flag of Japan, which was to the left of the flag of China. Find the two flags
which are in the centre.
A) India and Australia B) America and India C) Japan and Australia D) America and Australia
Ans: A
18. One boy can eat 100 chocolates in half a minute, and another can eat half as many in twice the length of
time. How many chocolates can both boys eat in 15 seconds?
Ans: 62.5 chocolates.
19. Potatoes are made up of 99% water and 1% “potato matter.” Jack bought 100 pounds of
potatoes and left them outside in the sun for a while. When he returned, he discovered that the potatoes
had dehydrated and were now only made up of 98% water. How much did the potatoes now weigh?
Ans: 50 pounds.
20. You own a pet store. If you put in one canary per cage, you have one canary too many. If you put in
two canaries per cage, you have one cage too many. How many canaries and cages do you have?
Ans: four canaries and three cages.